Describe the elements in Q(π)
Attempt: Q(π) is the smallest field which contains Q and π
We know that ∄ f(x)∈Q[x] such that f(π)=0
Hence, Q[x]/⟨p(x)⟩≉ is irreducible in \mathbb{Q}[x].
How do I move ahead? Please note that this exercise happens to be in the field extension chapter before algebraic extensions or finite fields are introduced.
EDIT: So, it means the the kernel of the mapping f: \mathbb{Q}[x] \rightarrow \mathbb{Q}[\pi] is an isomorphism since kernel f=0. Hence, their field of fractions of the integral domain is also isomorphic. I get till this point, but how do we relate this to \mathbb Q[\pi] . Does this \implies \mathbb{Q}(\pi)= \{a_0+a_1 \pi + a_2 \pi^2 + \cdots + a_n \pi^n ~~|~~a_0,a_1,\cdots a_n \in \mathbb Q\}
Thank you for your help.
Answer
If \alpha is a complex number that is "transcendental over" \mathbb{Q} then \mathbb{Q}(\alpha) is isomorphic to \mathbb{Q}(x) i.e. the field of rational functions over \mathbb{Q}.
To see why define the map,
f: \mathbb{Q}[x] \to \mathbb{Q}[\alpha] where \mathbb{Q}[\alpha] is the smallest ring containing \alpha and f(p(x)) = p(\alpha) where p(x)\in \mathbb{Q}[x] is a polynomial. This mapping is a homomorphism, clearly surjective, and most importantly injective. The reason for this if there was a non-trivial polynomial q(x) such that f(q(x)) = 0 then it would mean q(\alpha) = 0, which is impossible as we assumed that \alpha was transcendental. Thus, we conclude that \mathbb{Q}[x] and \mathbb{Q}[\alpha] are isomorphic as rings. Since they both are integral domains we can form their field of fractions and get the claimed result.
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