Thursday, August 18, 2016

sequences and series - Showing $sum _{k=1} 1/k^2 = pi^2/6$








I read my book of EDP, and there appears the next serie
$$\sum _{k=1} \dfrac{1}{k^2} = \dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$$
And, also, we prove that this series is equal $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ for methods od analysis of Fourier, but...



Do you know other proof, any more simple or beautiful?

No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to $f(A)$? I know that every function i...