Sunday, August 28, 2016

number theory - Induction on a double summation



Let f1,,fk, be arbitrary real numbers. Prove that for each non-negative integer k:



$\left (1-f_{1} \right )...\left (1-f_{k} \right ) = \sum_{j=0}^{k}(-1)^{j} \sum_{i_{1}

Hint: Use induction on k. You may assume that empty products are 1. In the case
that the fi are indicator functions of sets this is the “inclusion–exclusion principle”, “principle of cross classification” or “sieve principle”, depending on one’s point
of view.







So far I have been able to prove the base case where k=1, and assumed the inductive hypothesis wherek=n. I am unsure how to go about proving that this holds for the k=n+1 step.



Any help would be really appreciated.


Answer



Divide outer sum in RHS for k=n+1 into two parts: summands with fn+1 and summands without. Now try to establish connection of these parts with RHS for n=k.



Let's denote RHS by S(k). Then sum of terms in S(n+1) without fn+1 is S(n). And sum of other terms is equals to

n+1j=1(1)ji1<<ij1<ij=n+1fi1fij1fn+1=nj=0(1)j+1fn+1i1<<ijfi1fij,
it's exactly fn+1S(n).


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