In THIS ANSWER, I used straightforward complex analysis to show that
γ=2∫∞0cos(x2)−cos(x)xdx
where γ=−∫∞0log(x)e−xdx is the Euler-Mascheroni Constant.
The key in the derivation of (1) was to transform the cosine terms into real exponential ones.
To date, I have been unable to use strictly real analysis, without appealing to tabulated results of special functions (e.g., use of the Cin(x) and Ci(x) functions), to prove (1).
I have tried introducing a parameter and using "Feynman's Trick to augment the integral into something manageable. Or somewhat equivalently, rewriting the integral in (1) as a double integral and proceeding by exploiting Fubini-Tonelli.
QUESTION: What are ways to prove (1) without relying on complex analysis and without simply appealing to tabulated relationships of special functions. For example, stating that the Ci(x) function is defined as Ci(x)≡−∫∞xcos(t)tdt=γ+log(x)+∫x0cos(t)−1tdt is unsatisfactory unless one proves the latter equality.
Answer
It turns out that we have the following observation:
Observation. For a nice function f:[0,∞)→C, we have
∫∞ϵf(x)xdx=−f(0)logϵ+c(f)+o(1)as ϵ→0+
where the constant c(f) is computed by
c(f)=lim
The reasoning is surprisingly simple: First, define g(x) = (f(x) - f(0)\mathbf{1}_{(0,1)}(x))/x and notice that
\int_{\epsilon}^{\infty} \frac{f(x)}{x} \, dx = -f(0)\log\epsilon + \int_{\epsilon}^{\infty} g(x) \, dx.
Assuming that the LHS of \text{(1)} exists for all \epsilon > 0 and that f behaves nice near x = 0, this implies \text{(1)}. Next, notice that c(f) = \mathcal{L}g(0) and that -(\mathcal{L}g(s))' = \mathcal{L}f(s) - f(0) (1-e^{-s})/s. Therefore
\begin{align*} c(f) &= \lim_{R\to\infty} \int_{0}^{R} (-\mathcal{L}g(s))' \, ds \\ &= \lim_{R\to\infty} \left( \int_{0}^{R} \mathcal{L}f(s) \, ds - f(0) (1 - e^{-R})\log R + f(0) \int_{0}^{R} e^{-s}\log s \, ds \right) \\ &= \lim_{R\to\infty} \left( \int_{0}^{R} \mathcal{L}f(s) \, ds - f(0) \log R \right) - f(0)\gamma. \end{align*}
At this moment this is just a heuristic computation. For a broad class of functions for which the LHS of \text{(1)} exists, however, this computation can be made rigorous. This is particularly true for our function f(x) = \cos x. Now plugging \mathcal{L}f(s) = \frac{s}{s^2+1} shows that c(f) = -\gamma and thus
\int_{\epsilon}^{\infty} \frac{\cos x}{x} \, dx = -\log\epsilon - \gamma + o(1).
Plugging this asymptotics, we have
\int_{\epsilon}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(x^2) - \cos x}{x} \, dx = \frac{1}{2}\int_{\epsilon^2}^{\infty} \frac{\cos x}{x} \, dx - \int_{\epsilon}^{\infty} \frac{\cos x}{x} \, dx = \frac{1}{2}\gamma + o(1)
and the identity follows by letting \epsilon \to 0^+.
Here, the constant c(f) can be thought as a regularized value of the divergent integral \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{f(x)}{x} \, dx. This has the following nice properties (whenever they exist)
- c is linear: c(\alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)) = \alpha c(f) + \beta c(g).
- c(f(x^p)) = \frac{1}{p}c(f) for p > 0,
- c(f(px)) = c(f) - f(0)\log p for p > 0,
Together with some known values, we can easily compute other types of integrals. For instance, using the fact that c(\cos x) = -\gamma and c(e^{-x}) = -\gamma, we have
\begin{align*} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos (x^p) - \exp(-x^q)}{x} \, dx &= c\left\{ \cos (x^p) - \exp(-x^q) \right\} \\ &= \frac{1}{p}c(\cos x) - \frac{1}{q}c(e^{-x}) = \gamma\left( \frac{1}{q} - \frac{1}{p}\right) \end{align*}
for p, q > 0.
No comments:
Post a Comment