If the ssequence of an goes to infinity as n goes to infinity, then does lim
I know this sequence converges to a finite value if the sequence a_n converges to a finite value, but I don't know if that helps. I've tried using the definition a sequence converging to infinity, I've also tried using the convergence of \frac{1}{a_n} to 0 to show \frac{n}{a_1 + \dots + a_n} converges to 0, but no luck. Do I utilize the arithmetic mean inequality? Any hints are more than welcome (only hints please!).
Answer
Indeed,
THEOREM If the limit of a_n goes to infinity as n goes to infinity, then \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_1 + \dots + a_n}{n} = \infty
PROOF Let \ C>0.\ There exists natural \ N_C\ such that
\ a_k>2\cdot C\ for every \ k>N_C.\ Let
B_C\ :=\ \sum_{n=1}^{N_C}\ a_n
and let natural \ m_C\ satisfy
m_C\ >\ N_C-\frac {B_C}C
so that
B_C+2\cdot C\cdot m_C\ >\ (N_C+m_C)\cdot C
Now, let \ n>N_C+m_C.\ Then
\frac{a_1 + \dots + a_n}n\,\ > \,\ \frac{B_C\ +\ 2\cdot C\cdot m_C\ +\ \sum_{k=N_C+m_C+1}^n a_k}n
>\,\ \frac{(N_C+m_C)\cdot C\,\ +\,\ (n-(N_C+m_C))\cdot2\cdot C}n \,\ >\,\ C
Since \ C>0\ is arbitrary, the theorem holds. Great!
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