Sunday, May 5, 2019

probability theory - Let Xge0 be a random variable. Show that for any Mgt0 that Msumik=1nftyP(XgtkM)leE(X)leMsumik=0nftyP(XgtkM).




Let X0 be a random variable. Show that for any M>0 that
Mk=1P(X>kM)E(X)Mk=0P(X>kM).



Attempt



We know, E(X)=0(1F(x))dx and P(X>kM)=1F(kM), where F is distribution function. So by using this I get, Mk=11F(kM)0(1F(x))dxMk=01F(kM).



I was trying to approach like this but can't proceed further. If I am on right track then how to proceed further and if not then how to solve this problem?



Thanks



Answer



Another solution is this:



Since P[X>x]=1F(x), we can write
E[X]=0P[X>x]dx=0P[X/M>x/M]dx=M0P[X/M>u]du


with u=x/M.

Now, notice that for each k, and for all u[k,k+1],
P[X/M>(k+1)]P[X/M>u]P[X/M>k]

hence
P[X/M>(k+1)]k+1kP[X/M>u]duP[X/M>k]

hence
kP[X/M>(k+1)]kk+1kP[X/M>u]dukP[X/M>k]

which is the same as
k=1P(X>kM)1ME(X)k=0P(X>kM)


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