So I think I understand what differentials are, but let me know if I'm wrong.
So let's take y=f(x) such that f:[a,b]⊂R→R. Instead of defining the derivative of f in terms of the differentials dy and dx, we take the derivative f′(x) as our "primitive". Then to define the differentials we do as follows:
We find some x0∈[a,b] where there is some neighborhood of x0, N(x0), such that all f(x) in {f(x)∈R∣x∈N(x0)} are differentiable. Then we choose another point in N(x0), let's call it x1, such that x1≠x0. Then let dx=Δx=x1−x0. Now this Δx doesn't actually have to be very small like we're taught in Calculus 1 (in particular it's not infinitesimal, it's finite). In fact, as long as f(x) is differentiable for all x∈[−1010,1010] we could choose x0=−1010 and x1=1010.
Then we know that Δy=f′(x0)Δx+ϵ(Δx), where ϵ(Δx) is some nonlinear function of Δx. If f(x) is smooth, we know that ϵ(Δx) is equal to the sum of powers of Δx with some coefficients, by Taylor's theorem. But of course, ϵ(Δx) won't be so easy to describe if f(x) is only once differentiable. So we define dy as dy=f′(x0)dx: that is, dy is the linear part of Δy. This has the very useful property that limΔx→0ΔyΔx=dydx=f′(x0). This is then not a definition of the derivative, but a consequence of our definitions.
It can be seen from this dy really depends on what we choose as dx, but f′ is independent of both.
This definition can be extended to functions of multiple variables, like z=f(x,y) as well, by letting Δx=dx, Δy=dy and defining dz as dz=∂f(x0,y0)∂xdx+∂f(x0,y0)∂ydy. So dz is the linear part of Δz. Does all of the above look correct?
If so, then where I'm having a problem is:
1) how then do we define the derivative of f(x) if not by f′(x0)=limΔx→0ΔyΔx?
2) how do we apply this definition of dx to ∫baf(x)dx? It seems like the inherit arbitrariness of dx is really going to get in the way of a good definition of the integral.
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