Suppose we have a continuous function f:(0,1)→(0,1). Does there exist a differentiable function ϕ:(0,1)→(0,1) such that f(x)≤ϕ(x)?
There does exist such a differentiable function if the function f has finitely many non-differentiable points. Also this can be done if there exists an ϵ>0, no matter how small, such that the function f is differentiable in (0,ϵ).
Note that the real challenge lies in finding the differentiable function ϕ to be strictly less than one at the same time. This seems very much possible, at least pictorially. Because the graph of the function f lies strictly below the Y=1 line. And hence one can draw a smooth curve between the graph of f and the Y=1 line. But I can not prove it mathematically (rigorously). I need your help. Thanks in advance!
Answer
Pick monotonic sequences an→0 and bn→1.
Since f is bounded away from 1 on [an,bn], you can readily find smooth (in fact constant) ψn:[an,bn]→(0,1) that is differentiable and ≥f on this interval.
Now you can recursively glue together ϕn on [an,bn] such that ϕn(x)=ϕn−1(x) for x∈[an−2,bn−2], ψn(x)≥ϕn(x)≥ϕn−1(x)∖[an−2,bn−2] for x∈[an−1,bn−1], ϕn(x)=ψn(x) for x∈[an1,bn1]∖[an−1,bn−1].
Finally let ϕ(x)=ϕn+1(x) where n is such that x∈[an,bn].
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