While I was working on my stuff, another question suddenly came to mind, the one you see below
∫∞0(∑∞n=1sin(x2n))−sin(x)x2 dx
Which way should I look at this integral?
Answer
You can write you integral as ∫∞0t−2∑ν⩾ where g_\nu(t)=\sin(t/2^\nu)-\sin(t)/2^{\nu-1} and g(t)=\sum\limits_{\nu\geqslant 1}g_\nu(t). Using an equation relating g(2t) and g(t) and a change of variables t=2u in the integral I get that \int_0^\infty \frac{g(t)}{t^2}dt=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{2\sin t-\sin 2t}{t^2}dt
This is a Frullani type integral which you can evaluate to 2\log 2.
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