While I was working on my stuff, another question suddenly came to mind, the one you see below
∫∞0(∑∞n=1sin(x2n))−sin(x)x2 dx
Which way should I look at this integral?
Answer
You can write you integral as ∫∞0t−2∑ν⩾1gν(t)dt=∫∞0t−2g(t)dt where gν(t)=sin(t/2ν)−sin(t)/2ν−1 and g(t)=∑ν⩾1gν(t). Using an equation relating g(2t) and g(t) and a change of variables t=2u in the integral I get that ∫∞0g(t)t2dt=∫∞02sint−sin2tt2dt
This is a Frullani type integral which you can evaluate to 2log2.
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