Monday, September 5, 2016

sequences and series - Bernoulli's representation of Euler's number, i.e $e=lim limits_{xto infty} left(1+frac{1}{x}right)^x $





Possible Duplicates:
Finding the limit of $n/\sqrt[n]{n!}$
How come such different methods result in the same number, $e$?







I've seen this formula several thousand times: $$e=\lim_{x\to \infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^x $$



I know that it was discovered by Bernoulli when he was working with compound interest problems, but I haven't seen the proof anywhere. Does anyone know how to rigorously demonstrate this relationship?



EDIT:
Sorry for my lack of knowledge in this, I'll try to state the question more clearly. How do we prove the following?




$$ \lim_{x\to \infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k!}$$


Answer



From the binomial theorem



$$\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} \frac{1}{n^k} = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n}{n}\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}\cdots\frac{n-k+1}{n}\frac{1}{k!}$$



but as $n \to \infty$, each term in the sum increases towards a limit of $\frac{1}{k!}$, and the number of terms to be summed increases so



$$\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n \to \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}.$$



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