Wednesday, September 14, 2016

exponentiation - Power Set and Empty Set question




I have a question regarding the set of functions resulting from a set raised to a power. I think I have part of the understanding correct, however I'm having trouble interpreting Y. I have read other posts and reference them at the end. It's my understanding YX is as follows:



YX={f0,...,fn}



Where fn = {(x0,y0),...,(xn,yn)} and each is a total single-valued function.



For example, all the functions resulting in set inclusion and exclusion (the Power Set P(X)) is:



X={True,False}

Y={Admit,Exclude}



YX={f0,f1,f2,f3}



f0={(True,Admit),(False,Admit)}
f1={(True,Exclude),(False,Exclude)}
f2={(True,Admit),(False,Exclude)}
f3={(True,Exclude),(False,Admit)}



YX∣=card(YX)=∣YX=∣P(X)∣=4




A side note, f2,f3 are surjective and injective functions and result in a dichotomy for the truth function.



1n=1,n>0, results in a single function f0={(0,0),(1,0),...,(n,0)}. This seems intuitive.



I begin to get confused for the Y case. From other posts here and Wiki, this is as follows:




  • Algebra and Set Theory Definition: =Y=1



    • Based on the "empty function", Y={}

    • 22=122=4,21=12=2,20=1 : dividing by 2 each time, where 1 is implicit in the multiplication.


  • Math Analysis Definition: =undef



In above cases where the X=, I'm confused how there could be any function between the empty set X and base set Y. The empty set has no elements to map in a function. In this case, undef seems to fit this better. Can anyone provide guidence here?



n=0 where n>, makes sense to me because there are no functions that map between n and .




Perhaps it's because I'm looking at this as follows?



yn             *

y1 *

y0 *
x0 x1 ... xn



where the indicate an ordered pair, all of which make up a single function provided it is single-valued. The result of YX is all of these unique functions.



UPDATE



Case (a) 00=1 because x and therefore properties of a function are satisfied and 0X×Y. Case (b) 01=0 because properties of a function are not satisfied, 01y0. Case (c) 10=1 because of Case (a). Case (d) 11=1 because 11 and {(0,0)}(1×1).



Previous Post References: Prior Post
Prior Post


Answer




A map f:XY is a subset of X×Y with the following properties:




  1. for every xX, there exists yY with (x,y)f;

  2. for every xX and every y1,y2Y, if (x,y1)f and (x,y2)f, then y1=y2.



The first property ensures that every element of X has an image, the second property ensures the image is uniquely defined.



If X=, then there is a single subset of ×Y, namely the empty set, which satisfies the properties above (because there is no way they can be false). You are questioning about what is mapped where: you have to assign an image to every element of X, if there's no element you're already done, aren't you?




Thus the set of maps Y is a singleton consisting of the empty set:
Y={}
has cartinality 1. Note that Y has no special role here and can be any set.



The problem is with Y=, because X is empty whenever X, because you have no element where to map the elements of X; but there's no problem when X= as well, because of the argument above. Thus
|X|={1X=0X



Facts regarding limits and indeterminate forms have nothing to do with this combinatorial framework.


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