I have a question regarding the set of functions resulting from a set raised to a power. I think I have part of the understanding correct, however I'm having trouble interpreting Y∅. I have read other posts and reference them at the end. It's my understanding YX is as follows:
YX={f0,...,fn}
Where fn = {(x0,y0),...,(xn,yn)} and each is a total single-valued function.
For example, all the functions resulting in set inclusion and exclusion (the Power Set P(X)) is:
X={True,False}
Y={Admit,Exclude}
YX={f0,f1,f2,f3}
f0={(True,Admit),(False,Admit)}
f1={(True,Exclude),(False,Exclude)}
f2={(True,Admit),(False,Exclude)}
f3={(True,Exclude),(False,Admit)}
∣YX∣=card(YX)=∣Y∣∣X∣=∣P(X)∣=4
A side note, f2,f3 are surjective and injective functions and result in a dichotomy for the truth function.
1n=1,n>0, results in a single function f0={(0,0),(1,0),...,(n,0)}. This seems intuitive.
I begin to get confused for the Y∅ case. From other posts here and Wiki, this is as follows:
- Algebra and Set Theory Definition: ∅∅=Y∅=1
- Based on the "empty function", Y∅={∅}
- 22=1∗2∗2=4,21=1∗2=2,20=1 : dividing by 2 each time, where 1 is implicit in the multiplication.
- Math Analysis Definition: ∅∅=undef
In above cases where the X=∅, I'm confused how there could be any function between the empty set X and base set Y. The empty set has no elements to map in a function. In this case, undef seems to fit this better. Can anyone provide guidence here?
∅n=0 where n>∅, makes sense to me because there are no functions that map between n and ∅.
Perhaps it's because I'm looking at this as follows?
yn *
y1 *
y0 *
x0 x1 ... xn
where the ∗ indicate an ordered pair, all of which make up a single function provided it is single-valued. The result of YX is all of these unique functions.
UPDATE
Case (a) 00=1 because x∉∅ and therefore properties of a function are satisfied and 0⊆X×Y. Case (b) 01=0 because properties of a function are not satisfied, 0∈1∧y∉0. Case (c) 10=1 because of Case (a). Case (d) 11=1 because ∅∈1∧∅∈1 and {(0,0)}⊆(1×1).
Previous Post References: Prior Post
Prior Post
Answer
A map f:X→Y is a subset of X×Y with the following properties:
- for every x∈X, there exists y∈Y with (x,y)∈f;
- for every x∈X and every y1,y2∈Y, if (x,y1)∈f and (x,y2)∈f, then y1=y2.
The first property ensures that every element of X has an image, the second property ensures the image is uniquely defined.
If X=∅, then there is a single subset of ∅×Y, namely the empty set, which satisfies the properties above (because there is no way they can be false). You are questioning about what is mapped where: you have to assign an image to every element of X, if there's no element you're already done, aren't you?
Thus the set of maps Y∅ is a singleton consisting of the empty set:
Y∅={∅}
has cartinality 1. Note that Y has no special role here and can be any set.
The problem is with Y=∅, because ∅X is empty whenever X≠∅, because you have no element where to map the elements of X; but there's no problem when X=∅ as well, because of the argument above. Thus
|∅X|={1X=∅0X≠∅
Facts regarding limits and indeterminate forms have nothing to do with this combinatorial framework.
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