I=[0,1]
Let f:I→R continuous function such that f(0)=f(1). Prove that for all n∈N there x∈I such that x+1n∈I and f(x+1n)=f(x)
Could you help me by giving me an idea of how to do it?
I have injection f:A→B and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...
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