I was reading about this known fallacy
−1=i2=i⋅i=√−1⋅√−1=√(−1)(−1)=√1=1
and according to Wikipedia "The fallacy is that the rule √xy=√x√y is generally valid only if both x and y are positive"
So my question is, how come we can say that √−3=√3i ?. Aren't we applying the same mistake as the fallacy? Like √−3=√(−1)(3)=√−1√3=√3i cannot be since -1 is negative.
Thanks for reading.
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