Friday, September 16, 2016

complex numbers - Simplify sqrt3

I was reading about this known fallacy
1=i2=ii=11=(1)(1)=1=1
and according to Wikipedia "The fallacy is that the rule xy=xy is generally valid only if both x and y are positive"



So my question is, how come we can say that 3=3i ?. Aren't we applying the same mistake as the fallacy? Like 3=(1)(3)=13=3i cannot be since -1 is negative.




Thanks for reading.

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