Monday, December 2, 2019

functions - Why is the domain of x raised to x (0,infinity)?

My math teacher was explaining how to draw graphs of given functions. For $f(x)=x^x$ he put the domain as $(0,\infty)$. Why is this true (if it is)? For $x= -2$, $(-2)^{-2}$ is $1/4$, and so the function is defined at $x= -2$. Isn't it?

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analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to $f(A)$? I know that every function i...