I'm trying to prove the following statement (an exercise in Bourbaki's Set Theory):
If E is an infinite set, the set of subsets of E which are equipotent to E is equipotent to P(E).
As a hint, there is a reference to a proposition of the book, which reads:
Every infinite set X has a partition (Xι)ι∈I formed of countably infinite sets, the index set I being equipotent to X.
I don't have any idea how that proposition might help.
If E is countable, then a subset of E is equipotent to E iff it is infinite. But the set of all finite subsets of E is equipotent to E. So its complement in P(E) has to be equipotent to P(E) by Cantor's theorem. Hence the statement is true if E is countable. Unfortunately, I don't see a way to generalize this argument to uncountable E.
I'd be glad for a small hint to get me going.
Answer
Using the axiom of choice, every infinite set X can be divided into two disjoint sets X0⊔X1, both of which are equinumerous with X. (Just well-order X, and take every other point in the enumeration.)
Now, consider all sets of the form X0∪A for any A⊂X1. There are 2X many such A and hence 2X many such sets, and each is equinumerous with the original set X. So we've got 2X many sets as desired, and there cannot be more than this, so this is the precise number.
Incidently, the stated answer to this question does in fact depend on the axiom of choice, since it is known to be consistent with ZF+¬AC that there are infinite Dedekind finite sets, and these are not equinumerous with any proper subsets of themselves. So for such an infinite set X, there would be only one subset to which it is equinumerous.
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