Sunday, January 27, 2019

algebra precalculus - Proving an inequality log and e



This inequality should be fairly easy to show. I think I'm just having trouble looking at it the right way (It's used in a proof without explanation).




(11log2n)(2logn)1e2/logn



Any help is much appreciated. Thanks
Edit: Log is base 2


Answer



Assuming n>2 are natural numbers and log=log2:



(1+1n)n is increasing, lim and (1+\frac 1x)^x < e for x \ge 1.



And (1-\frac 1x)^x > \frac 1e for x \ge 1.




So (1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{\log^2 n} > e^{-1}



( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n} > e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}



( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} > \frac {e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}}{1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}}



If n > 2 and \log n = \log_2 n > 1 then 0< {1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}} < 1 and



( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} > \frac {e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}}{1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}}>e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}




If n = 2 then



( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} =



( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 2})^{2\log 2 - 1} = 0^0 is undefined.



Likewise if n=1 we have division by 0.



Perhaps \log = \ln =\log_e?



No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection f \colon A \rightarrow B and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...