This inequality should be fairly easy to show. I think I'm just having trouble looking at it the right way (It's used in a proof without explanation).
(1−1log2n)(2logn)−1≥e−2/logn
Any help is much appreciated. Thanks
Edit: Log is base 2
Answer
Assuming n>2 are natural numbers and log=log2:
(1+1n)n is increasing, lim and (1+\frac 1x)^x < e for x \ge 1.
And (1-\frac 1x)^x > \frac 1e for x \ge 1.
So (1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{\log^2 n} > e^{-1}
( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n} > e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}
( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} > \frac {e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}}{1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}}
If n > 2 and \log n = \log_2 n > 1 then 0< {1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}} < 1 and
( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} > \frac {e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}}{1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n}}>e^{\frac{-2}{\log n}}
If n = 2 then
( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 n})^{2\log n - 1} =
( 1 - \frac 1{\log^2 2})^{2\log 2 - 1} = 0^0 is undefined.
Likewise if n=1 we have division by 0.
Perhaps \log = \ln =\log_e?
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