My task is this:
Show that ln(2)=∞∑n=11n2n
My work so far:
If we approximate ln(x) around x=1, we get:
ln(x)=(x−1)−(x−1)22+(x−1)33−(x−1)44+...
Substituting x=2 then gives us:
ln(2)=1−12+13−14+15+...
No suprise there, we should always get alternating series for ln(x) when we are doing the taylor expansion. By using Euler transform which is shown at the middle of this page on natural logarithm one can obtain the wanted result, but how do you derive it? I need someone to actually show and explain in detail how one starts from the left side of the equation and ends up on the other.
Thanks in advance
Answer
Note that
\begin{align}
\frac{1}{1-x}&=1+x+x^2+\cdots\qquad(-1
Thus
−ln(1−x)=∫11−xdx=x+12x2+13x3+⋯=∞∑n=11nxn.
By taking x=12 into the above equation, we have
∞∑n=11n2n=−ln(12)=ln(2).
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