I am not sure if this is a straightforward question, since I am not familiar with complex analysis.
$i^e = e^{(i*π/2)*e} = (e^{iπ})^{e/2} = (-1)^{e/2}$
I think that's somewhat right, but when I put this into a calculator an imaginary part also comes out.
Is this because of $e$?
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