Suppose that the function f:[0,1]→R is continuous on
[0,1] and f(0)=f(1). Prove that for each natural number n, there
exists xn∈R such that 0≤xn≤1−1n
and f(xn)=f(xn+1n).
Though I don't know how the proof would look like, I have a strong feeling that it has something to do with the Intermediate Value Theorem, judging by the continuity of f and the existence of such a xn. So I guess I'm supposed to define a function g(x)=f(x)−f(x+1n) on [0,1n] and try to claim that g(xn)=0 for some xn∈[0,1n]. Unfortunately I don't know how to proceed further from here, maybe because I haven't made use of the fact that f(0)=f(1).
Any hint and suggestion is much appreciated. Thank you!
Answer
Consider gn(x)=g(x+1n)−g(x) for x∈[0,n−1n].
Now 0=g(1)−g(0)=gn(0)+gn(1n)+…gn(n−1n). If gn(kk)=0 for any k you are done. On the other hand, if not, since their sum is 0, at least one of the values gn(k/n) must be positive and at least one must be negative.
Now use the intermediate value theorem.
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