Notation: Let A and B be sets. The set of all functions f:A→B is denoted by BA.
Problem: Let A, B, and C be sets. Show that there exists a bijection from (AB)C into AB×C. You should first construct a function and then prove that it is a bijection.
Actually this question hasn't been posted by me, but has already been answered and closed as Find a bijection from (AB)C into AB×C
I don't agree, since this doesn't seen at least for me to be correct. Maybe I haven't got through the answer but in my view, the correct answer should be, following the same letters for the functions:
my Answer
Let f∈(AB)C,g∈AB×C. Define Φ:(AB)C→AB×C by setting
Φ(f)(b,c)=f(c)(b)
This is a bijection because it has an inverse Ψ:AB×C→(AB)C
Ψ(g)(c)(b)=g(b,c)
I would like to know if my editions to the functions really answer the question or if the previous answer Find a bijection from (AB)C into AB×C was indeed correct.
Thanks.
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