This is based on exercise 3.2.4 of D. J. H. Garling's A Course in Mathematical Analysis. Let a∈N be a fixed number and consider the sequence (na2n)n∈N (the exercise in Garling uses a=106). Does this sequence converge?
Heuristically, it seems to me clear that it does. Although a may be very large, the sequence in the denominator grows faster than the one in the numerator, so that at some point for n>a, we will have a decreasing sequence. However, I've been unable so far to formalize this intuition in a rigorous argument. Can someone give me a hint, here?
Answer
Note that, for a,n≥2,
$$(n+1)^a=\sum_{j=0}^a\binom ajn^j
Then, if bn=na/2n we have
0<bn+1bn=12(n+1)ana<12(1+2an)→12
So by ratio test, the series
∞∑n=1bn
converges, and hence bn→0.
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