\binom{n}{0}\binom{n}{1}+\binom{n}{1}\binom{n}{2}+...+\binom{n}{n-1}\binom{n}{n}
All I could think of so far is to turn this expression into a sum. But that does not necessarily simplify the expression. Please, I need your help.
Answer
First note that \dbinom{n}k = \dbinom{n}{n-k}. Hence, your sum can be written as
\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \dbinom{n}k \dbinom{n}{k+1} = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \dbinom{n}k \dbinom{n}{n-k-1}
Now consider a bag with n red balls and n blue balls. We want to choose a total of n-1 bals. The total number of ways of doing this is given by \dbinom{2n}{n-1} \tag{$\star$}
However, we can also count this differently. Any choice of n-1 balls will involve choosing k blue balls and n-k-1 red balls. Hence, the number of ways of choose n-1 balls with k blue balls is \color{blue}{\dbinom{n}k} \color{red}{\dbinom{n}{n-1-k}} Now to count all possible ways of choosing n-1 balls, we need to let our k run from 0 to n-1. Hence, the total number of ways is
\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \color{blue}{\dbinom{n}k} \color{red}{\dbinom{n}{n-k-1}} \tag{$\dagger$}
Now since (\star) and (\dagger) count the same thing, they must be equal and hence, we get that
\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \color{blue}{\dbinom{n}k} \color{red}{\dbinom{n}{n-k-1}} = \dbinom{2n}{n-1}
EDIT As Brian points out in the comments, the above is a special case of the more general Vandermonde's identity.
\sum_{k=0}^r \dbinom{m}k \dbinom{n}{r-k} = \dbinom{m+n}r The proof for this is essentially the same as above. Consider a bag with m blue balls and n red balls and count the number of ways of choosing r balls from these m+n balls in two different ways as discussed above.
No comments:
Post a Comment