Let k be a perfect field (either k has characteristic 0, or characteristic p>0 and every element has a pth root), and let K be a finitely generated extension field.
I have a question about a step in the proof of the following statement. This can be found in the Vol. 1 of Shafarevich (Appendix 5) or "Introduction to Algebraic Geometry and Algebraic Groups" by Geck (exercise 1.8.15).
Let d be the transcendence degree of K/k. The claim is that then there exist elements z1,…,zd+1 such that:
- K=k(z1,…,zd+1).
- z1,…,zd are algebraically independent.
- zd+1 is separable algebraic over k(z1,…,zd).
The proof proceeds as follows. Now there exist ai such that K=k(a1,…,an), with d≤n, and a1,…,ad are algebraically independent. The case n=d is easy, so assume n>d and proceed by induction on n.
First: {a1,…,ad+1} is not algebraically independent, so there exists a nonzero, nonconstant irreducible polynomial F∈k[X1,…,Xd+1] such that F(a1,…,ad+1)=0.
Since k is perfect it follows that for some i the partial derivative of F with respect to Xi is nonzero.
So far this makes sense. The next claim is that ai is separable algebraic over L=k(a1,…,ai−1,ai+1,…,ad+1), and this is the only thing in the proof I have a problem with. Why is this true? In the proof they claim we can use F because Xi appears in it, but I fail to see how this follows. Couldn't F(a1,…,ai−1,X,ai+1,…,ad+1) be the zero polynomial in L[X]?
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