prove $f(x)f(y)=f(xy), f(1)=1 \iff f(x)=x^k (k\ real)$ for $f:\mathbb{R}^+\to \mathbb{R}^+$
I find $f(a^r)=f(a)^r$ for rational r, but I cannot move to the next step.
I have injection $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to $f(A)$? I know that every function i...
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