Tuesday, April 26, 2016

calculus - Why does combining intinftyinftyex2dxintinftyinftyey2dy into a dx,dy integral work?



I was looking here: How to compute the integral ex2dx? to find out how to evaluate ex2dx, and didn't understand why
(ex2dx)(ey2dy)=ex2ey2dxdy
I know you can use Fubini's Theorem from this: Why does (et2dt)2=e(x2+y2)dxdy?, but I'm still confused about how exactly you can just multiply two integrals together like that.



A detailed answer would be very nice.




Thanks!


Answer



ex2ey2dxdy



Because we treat y constant in the first, inner, integral we can pull it out.



=ey2ex2dxdy



Now because ex2dx is some constant we can pull it out,




=ex2dxey2dy



The result we got is generalizable, given g(x,y)=f(x)h(y) we have,



badcg(x,y)dxdy=bah(y)dydcf(x)dx



Provided everything we write down exists.


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