How can I prove that if gcd, then
\gcd(ab, c) = \gcd(a, c) \times \gcd(b, c)?
By eea there exists ax+by=1 from \gcd(a,b)=1 so a and be are co-primes there also exists dk=a and dj= b where d=\gcd(a,b)=1 this is all the information I have gathered from the question but I dont know how to approach and solve it. Can anyone help explain to me how to arrive at the answer? Thanks!
Answer
Without using primes.
We show that (ab,c) \mid (a,c)(b,c) and that (a,c)(b,c)\mid (ab,c) .
We have ax+by=1 multiplying by c we have
acx+bcy=c
Now (a,c)(b,c)\left[\frac{a}{(a,c)}\frac{c}{(b,c)}x+\frac{b}{(b,c)}\frac{c}{(a,c)}y\right]=c
where of course \frac{a}{(a,c)} etc are integers. So (a,c)(b,c)\mid c.
It is clear that (a,c)(b,c)\mid ab since (a,c)\mid a and (b,c)\mid b. And therefore we have
(a,c)(b,c)\mid (ab,c) .
To show the other direction note that there are p,q,r,s such that
ap+qc=(a,c)
and br+cs=(b,c)
thus
(a,c)(b,c)=abpr +(aps+brq+qsc)c and this latter is divisible by (ab,c)
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