Wednesday, July 24, 2019

calculus - Clarify and justify how get the derivative of the Laplace transform of the Buchstab function



I would like to justify that the derivative with respect to s of the Laplace transform of the Buchstab function is
1uω(u)esudu=essexp(0ettdt)




for s>0.




Question. Was my deduction right? Please can you justify it rigorously? Thanks in advance.




You can take the definiton of Buchstab function, and its Laplace transform from Tao What's new? I say Exercise 28 of 254A, Supplement 4: Probabilistic models and heuristics for primes, and take required theorems from Wikipedia Differentiation under the integral sign. I¡ve computed the derivative



dds0ettdt

with Wolfram Alpha because I had doubts of how work with the upper limit, since there is infinite (also with calculus, I say the rule chain, and LHS by other theorem). I need these calculations since I would like to study more calculations for this function, like to try the integration by parts (notice that it is possible a simplification if one uses the related differential equation). Then can you help to justify the right statement, I say both sides of previous derivative of the Laplace transform of this special function with respect s. Also if you want clarify, if in LHS the interval of integration is 0 or 1


Answer



The Laplace transform that you are looking for is given, of course, by the formula



L(ω)(s)=0ω(u) esu du.



The problem is that the definition of Buchstab's function (the series in Tao's Ex. 28.i) is almost useless for computations. Fortunately, there comes Ex. 28.iii which gives the following formula:



uω(u)=1(1,)(u)+u01(1,)(t) ω(ut) dt.




We have, therefore, to produce an uω(u) inside Laplace's transform, and the obvious way to to this is to derive with respect to s:



L(ω)(s)=0uω(u) esu du=0(1(1,)(u)+u01(1,)(t) ω(ut) dt) esu du=1esu du0(u01(1,)(t) ω(ut) dt) esu du=ess1(u1ω(ut) dt) esu du=ess1(tω(ut) du) esu dt=ess1(0ω(v) dv) es(t+v) dt=ess1est dt L(ω)(s)=ess(L(ω)(s)+1).



This is an elementary differential equation which can be rewritten as




L(ω)(s)L(ω)(s)+1=ess,



whence it follows that, for arbitrary but fixed σ>0,



ln(L(ω)(s)+1)ln(L(ω)(σ)+1)=sσett dt



so finally, after exponentiating and rearranging a bit,



L(ω)(s)=exp(sσett dt)(L(ω)(σ)+1)1.




It is now easy to derive with respect to s and get



L(ω)(s)=ess exp(sσett dt)(L(ω)(σ)+1).



Your own result is very close to being correct, having the following errors:




  • the minus sign missing from the fraction (both inside and outside the exponential)


  • the endpoints of your integral in the RHS are 0 and ; 0 clearly cannot be, because 1s is not integrable close to s=0 (the numerator es not raising any problem)


  • the factor L(ω)(σ)+1 has to be there, playing the role of the initial condition for that differential equation; unfortunately, with ω being so ugly, there is no obvious σ for which L(ω)(σ) could have a simple value, therefore we have to leave it there.




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