I would like to justify that the derivative with respect to s of the Laplace transform of the Buchstab function is
∫∞1uω(u)e−sudu=e−ssexp(∫∞0e−ttdt)
for s>0.
Question. Was my deduction right? Please can you justify it rigorously? Thanks in advance.
You can take the definiton of Buchstab function, and its Laplace transform from Tao What's new? I say Exercise 28 of 254A, Supplement 4: Probabilistic models and heuristics for primes, and take required theorems from Wikipedia Differentiation under the integral sign. I¡ve computed the derivative
dds∫∞0e−ttdt
with Wolfram Alpha because I had doubts of how work with the upper limit, since there is infinite (also with calculus, I say the rule chain, and LHS by other theorem). I need these calculations since I would like to study more calculations for this function, like to try the integration by parts (notice that it is possible a simplification if one uses the related differential equation). Then can you help to justify the right statement, I say both sides of previous derivative of the Laplace transform of this special function with respect s. Also if you want clarify, if in LHS the interval of integration is ∫∞0 or ∫∞1
Answer
The Laplace transform that you are looking for is given, of course, by the formula
L(ω)(s)=∞∫0ω(u) e−su du.
The problem is that the definition of Buchstab's function (the series in Tao's Ex. 28.i) is almost useless for computations. Fortunately, there comes Ex. 28.iii which gives the following formula:
uω(u)=1(1,∞)(u)+u∫01(1,∞)(t) ω(u−t) dt.
We have, therefore, to produce an uω(u) inside Laplace's transform, and the obvious way to to this is to derive with respect to s:
L(ω)′(s)=∞∫0−uω(u) e−su du=−∞∫0(1(1,∞)(u)+u∫01(1,∞)(t) ω(u−t) dt) e−su du=−∞∫1e−su du−∞∫0(u∫01(1,∞)(t) ω(u−t) dt) e−su du=−e−ss−∞∫1(u∫1ω(u−t) dt) e−su du=−e−ss−∞∫1(∞∫tω(u−t) du) e−su dt=−e−ss−∞∫1(∞∫0ω(v) dv) e−s(t+v) dt=−e−ss−∞∫1e−st dt L(ω)(s)=−e−ss(L(ω)(s)+1).
This is an elementary differential equation which can be rewritten as
L(ω)′(s)L(ω)(s)+1=−e−ss,
whence it follows that, for arbitrary but fixed σ>0,
ln(L(ω)(s)+1)−ln(L(ω)(σ)+1)=−s∫σe−tt dt
so finally, after exponentiating and rearranging a bit,
L(ω)(s)=exp(−s∫σe−tt dt)(L(ω)(σ)+1)−1.
It is now easy to derive with respect to s and get
L(ω)′(s)=−e−ss exp(−s∫σe−tt dt)(L(ω)(σ)+1).
Your own result is very close to being correct, having the following errors:
the minus sign missing from the fraction (both inside and outside the exponential)
the endpoints of your integral in the RHS are 0 and ∞; 0 clearly cannot be, because 1s is not integrable close to s=0 (the numerator e−s not raising any problem)
the factor L(ω)(σ)+1 has to be there, playing the role of the initial condition for that differential equation; unfortunately, with ω being so ugly, there is no obvious σ for which L(ω)(σ) could have a simple value, therefore we have to leave it there.
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