Friday, November 23, 2018

We all use mathematical induction to prove results, but is there a proof of mathematical induction itself?

I just realized something interesting. At schools and universities you get taught mathematical induction. Usually you jump right into using it to prove something like



$$1+2+3+\cdots+n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}$$



However.



I just realized that at no point is mathematical induction proved itself? What's the mathematical induction's proof? Is mathematical induction proved using mathematical induction itself? (That would be mind blowing.)

No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to $f(A)$? I know that every function i...