I have following function:
f(x)=x2⋅(sin1x)2
I want to find the limit of the function for x→0±. First I analyze 1x:
- 1x→+∞ for x→0+
but the sin of infinity does not exist. Then I use the comparison theorem (I don't know how it's called in English) and conclude that, because
|x2(sin1x)2|≤1x2→0+
therefore the initial function tends to 0. Is this reasoning correct? Are there better ways?
Answer
If you meant |x2sin2(1x)|⩽, then yes, it is correct. It follows from this that \lim_{x\to 0}\left\lvert x^2\sin^2\left(\frac1x\right)\right\rvert=0 and that therefore \lim_{x\to 0}x^2\sin^2\left(\frac1x\right)=0.
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