I have solved the problem in just 2 lines using a theorem which asserts that
"Let un be a real sequence such that un>0∀n∈N and limn→∞un+1un=ℓ (finite of infinite). Then limn→∞(un)1n=ℓ "
To prove the aforesaid limit, I fix un=nnn!. Then un>0∀n∈N and limn→∞un+1un=limn→∞(1+1n)n=e.
Then it follows from the above theorem that limn→∞(un)1n=e i.e. limn→∞n(n!)1n=e. (Proved)
But I am trying to prove it without using the theorem. I am trying to get a generic proof.
Can anyone provide a proper wayout for this?
Thanks for your help in advance.
Answer
EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, even though the final inequality is correct, it is insufficient since (n+1)1/n→1 as n→∞. The lower bound can be obtained as shown in @adfriedman's answer.
Here's my take on it:
Whenever n≥3, we have
nn≥(n+1)!,
and thus
nn≥(n+1)n!⇔nn!1n≥(n+1)1n.
On the other hand, the Taylor expansion of en gives
nnn!≤∞∑k=0nkk!=en⇔nn!1n≤e.
So,
(n+1)1n≤nn!1n≤e.
Apply the Squeeze Theorem.
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