I saw this question yesterday.
lim
I claim that the limit is 0 because it can be written like the following.
\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{\sin x}{x}+\frac{\sin^2x}{x}+\dotsb\right)
Then I say in this expression the numerator is limited between [-1,1], and the denominator for each term goes as much as to infinity. Hence term by term we have 0, and adding these up we have 0 as the answer.
But then some guy says its indeterminate, because
\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{1+\sin x+\sin^2x+\dotsb}{x} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{1-\sin^nx}{(1-\sin x)x}
He claims what we have in the denominator is oscillating and we cannot have a limit. Also, he says I'm wrong because an infinite amount of zero does not equal to zero.
I'd like to hear your ideas about the answer.
Answer
Let
f(x)=\frac{1+\sin x+\sin^2x+\ldots}x
for all x\in\Bbb R for which this is defined. If x>0 and \sin x\ne\pm 1, then
f(x)=\frac{1}{x(1-\sin x)}\;.
Let n be any odd positive integer. By taking x sufficiently close to \frac{n\pi}2, we can makef(x) arbitrarily large. Thus, there is a strictly increasing sequence \langle x_n:n\in\Bbb N\rangle of positive real numbers such that \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(x_n)=\infty.
Since there is also such a sequence for which f(x_n)=0 for each n\in\Bbb N, the limit does not exist.
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