Wednesday, August 22, 2018

calculus - limxtoinftyfracsinx+sin2x+sin3x+dotsbxsinx, infinite series limit



I saw this question yesterday.




lim





I claim that the limit is 0 because it can be written like the following.



\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{\sin x}{x}+\frac{\sin^2x}{x}+\dotsb\right)



Then I say in this expression the numerator is limited between [-1,1], and the denominator for each term goes as much as to infinity. Hence term by term we have 0, and adding these up we have 0 as the answer.



But then some guy says its indeterminate, because



\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{1+\sin x+\sin^2x+\dotsb}{x} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{1-\sin^nx}{(1-\sin x)x}




He claims what we have in the denominator is oscillating and we cannot have a limit. Also, he says I'm wrong because an infinite amount of zero does not equal to zero.



I'd like to hear your ideas about the answer.


Answer



Let



f(x)=\frac{1+\sin x+\sin^2x+\ldots}x



for all x\in\Bbb R for which this is defined. If x>0 and \sin x\ne\pm 1, then




f(x)=\frac{1}{x(1-\sin x)}\;.



Let n be any odd positive integer. By taking x sufficiently close to \frac{n\pi}2, we can makef(x) arbitrarily large. Thus, there is a strictly increasing sequence \langle x_n:n\in\Bbb N\rangle of positive real numbers such that \lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(x_n)=\infty.



Since there is also such a sequence for which f(x_n)=0 for each n\in\Bbb N, the limit does not exist.


No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection f \colon A \rightarrow B and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...