Find
\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} \binom{n}{k}.
First time I thought about Stirling's approximation but didn't get anything by applying it. I would also think about a Riemann Sum, but no idea how to rewrite...
The answer is 0.
Answer
Let a_k = k^{-1/2}. Notice that (a_k) decreases to 0. Then for each fixed m \geq 1 and for all n \geq m,
\frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a_k \leq \frac{1}{2^n} \underbrace{\sum_{k=1}^{m} \binom{n}{k} (a_k - a_m)}_{= \mathcal{O}(n^m)} + \frac{1}{2^n} \underbrace{\sum_{k=1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a_m}_{=(2^n - 1)a_m}.
Taking limsup as n\to\infty, it follows that
\limsup_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a_k \leq a_m
Since a_m \to 0 as m\to\infty, this proves
\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a_k = 0.
Addendum. I just saw that OP is a high-school student. Here is a little tweak of the argument above that does not use any fancy analysis stuffs.
Let m_n = \lfloor \log n \rfloor. Then for n \geq 3, we always have 1 \leq m_n \leq n. Then
\begin{align*} 0 \leq \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} &= \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{m_n} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} + \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=m_n + 1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} \\ &\leq \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=1}^{m_n} n^k + \frac{1}{2^n} \sum_{k=m_n + 1}^{n} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{\sqrt{m_n}} \tag{1} \\ &\leq \frac{n^{1+m_n}}{2^n} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{m_n}}. \tag{2} \end{align*}
For \text{(1)} I utilized the fact that \binom{n}{k} \leq n^k and \frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} is decreasing. For \text{(2)} I utilized the geometric sum formula and the identity \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} = 2^n.
Now taking n\to\infty and applying the squeezing lemma proves the claim.
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