So, I was just asking myself can something like this happen? I was thinking about some everywhere continuous but nowhere differentiable functions f and g and the natural question arose on can the composition f∘g be differentiable, in other words, can the operation of composition somehow "smoothen" the irregularities of f and g which make them non-differentiable in such a way that composition becomes differentiable?
So here is the question again:
Suppose that f and g are everywhere continuous but nowhere differentiable functions. Can f∘g be differentiable?
If such an example exists it would be interesting because the rule (f(g(x))′=f′(g(x))⋅g′(x) would not hold, and not only that it would not hold, it would not make any sense because f and g are not differentiable.
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