I'd like to prove that the product of the roots of two distinct primes p1 and p2 is irrational.
That is,
√p1p2∉Q
Would the following be a valid proof?
Suppose √p1p2∈Q.
Then √p1p2=ab for a,b∈Z such that gcd(a,b)=1.
p1p2=a2b2⟹p1p2b2=a2⟹p1,p2∣a2⟹p1,p2∣a.
So a=p1p2n, for nonzero n∈Z.
Let the unique prime factorization of a=p1p2(pi1⋯pin) and of b=pj1⋯pjm.
Then
p1p2=a2b2=p21p22(p2i1⋯p2in)p2j1⋯p2jm=p1p2(p1p2(p2i1⋯p2in)p2j1⋯p2jm)⏟=1
But this implies that p1=pjt and p2=pjs for t,s∈[1,m]. That is p1,p2∣b.
Therefore, p1 and p2 are divisors of both a and b, which contradicts gcd(a,b)=1.
Hence, √p1p2∉Q.
P.S. Sorry for the double subscripts.
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