Given improper integral ∞∫0(1√x2+4−kx+2)dx,
there exists k that makes this integral convergent.
Find its integration value.
Choices are ln2, ln3, ln4, and ln5.
I've written every information from the problem.
Yet I'm not sure whether I should find the integration value from the given integral or k.
What I've tried so far is,
∫∞01√x2+4dx=[sinh−1x2]∞0
How should I proceed?
Answer
We have that for x→∞
1√x2+4=1x(1+4/x2)−1/2∼1x−2x3
and
kx+2∼kx
therefore in order to have convergence we need k=1 in such way that the 1x term cancels out.
Then we need to solve and evaluate
∫∞0(1√x2+4−1x+2)dx=[sinh−1x2−log(x+2)]∞0
and to evaluate the value at ∞ recall that
sinh−1x2=log(x2+√x24+1)∼logx
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