How to prove the Mean Value Theorem using Rolle's Theorem? I am getting the impression that it is possible by adding a linear function to a function where Rolle's theorem applies to prove the MVT. However, I can't quite turn this idea into a rigorous mathematical argument.
Answer
For f continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b), the standard proofs I've seen use the function that gives the difference of f and the function whose graph is the line segment joining the points (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b));
ϕ(x)=f(x)−f(a)−f(b)−f(a)b−a(x−a).
From the continuity and differentiablity of f (and standard theorems such as the difference of continuous functions is continuous) it follows that ϕ is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b). Since ϕ(a)=ϕ(b)=0, Rolle's theorem applies to ϕ on [a,b]. Writing down the result obtained from Rolle's Theorem gives all that is desired.
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