I understand that π0 would be infinity, hence sin(πx) does not have a limit as x approach 0.
But if I would to use the squeeze theorem:
−1≤sin(πx)≤1
shouldn't it be zero? Or does the squeeze theorem not work here?
I have injection f:A→B and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...
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