I understand that $\frac{\pi}{0}$ would be infinity, hence $\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{x} \right)$ does not have a limit as $x$ approach $0$.
But if I would to use the squeeze theorem:
$$-1 \leq \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{x} \right) \leq 1$$
shouldn't it be zero? Or does the squeeze theorem not work here?
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