Does a function f:R→R such that f′(x)>f(x)>0 exist?
Intuitively, I think it can't exist.
I've tried finding the answer using the definition of derivative:
I know that if lim exists and is finite, then \lim_{x \rightarrow k} f(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow k^+} f(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow k^-} f(x)
Thanks to this property, I can write:
\begin{align} & f'(x) > f(x) > 0 \\ & \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}h > f(x) > 0 \\ & \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} f(x + h) - f(x) > h f(x) > 0 \\ & \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} f(x + h) > (h + 1) f(x) > f(x) \\ & \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} \frac{f(x + h)}{f(x)} > h + 1 > 1 \end{align}
- This leads to the result 1 > 1 > 1 (or 0 > 0 > 0 if you stop earlier), which is false.
However I guess I made serious mistakes with my proof. I think I've used limits the wrong way. What do you think?
Answer
expanded from David's comment
f' > f means f'/f > 1 so (\log f)' > 1. Why not take \log f > x, say \log f = 2x, or f = e^{2x}.
Thus f' > f > 0 since 2e^{2x} > e^{2x} > 0.
added: Is there a sub-exponential solution?
From (\log f)'>1 we get
\log(f(x))-\log(f(0)) > \int_0^x\;1\;dt = x
so
\frac{f(x)}{f(0)} > e^x
and thus
f(x) > C e^x
for some constant C ... it is not sub-exponential.
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