LetA and B be two sets. When we say there is a bijective correspondence between A and B, it means there is a bijective map between them.
In some texts, to prove there is a correspondence between A and B, just show that correspondence to every element of A there is an element in B and conversely. While I think we should prove that there is a well-defined surjective map from A onto B. Am I right? Please explain it.
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