I have recently discovered ∞∑k=1cos(kα)k2−∞∑k=1cos(kβ)k2=∫βαtan−1(cot(θ/2))dθ which seems to be a nice way to attack Basel problem. The integral nicely reduces to ∫β0π2−θ2dθ=2πβ−β2−2πα+α24=14(α−β)(α+β−2π) when α,β∈[0,2π]. The question: how do I choose α and β such that cos(kα)−cos(kβ)=1 for all k∈N? Does this k even exist?
Answer
Sadly, there's no such α and β. We'll try and solve the more general equation - cos(kα)−cos(kβ) is a non-zero constant, say C.
Assume there are such α,β. Let x=cosα,y=cosβ.
Note that cos(2t)=2cos(t)2−1,cos(3t)=4cos(t)3−3cos(t). Then the following 2 equalities hold:
x−y=C
2x2−2y2=C
Factoring 2x2−2y2 as 2(x−y)(x+y) and plugging the first equation, we find that x+y=0.5 This leads to x=C+0.52,y=0.5−C2.
Now we choose k=3:
4x3−3x−(4y3−3y)=C
The LHS factors as (x−y)(4(x2+xy+y2)−3)=(x−y)(4(x+y)2−4xy−3), which is
C(4(0.5)2−4(116−C24)−3)=C
Cancelling the Cs, it becomes
C2=3.25
So C≠1!
Now we note that cos(4t)=8(cos(t)4−cos(t)2)+1, which gives the following equation:
8(x4−x2−(y4−y2))=1
The LHS factors as 8(x2−y2)(x2+y2−1)=1. We can plug 2x2−2y2=C and this becomes
x2+y2=14C+1
But x2+y2=C22+18=1.75, so it follows that C=13, a contradiction to C2=3.25.
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