I don't know that determine is the right word, but I try to explain. What I need to understand. :) So..
We know's that if a function fit this conditions:
- Monotonically non-decreasing for each of its variables
- Right-continuous for each of its variables.
0≤F(x1,…,xn)≤1
limx1,…,xn→∞F(x1,…,xn)=1
limxi→−∞F(x1,…,xn)=0, for all i
then the function is or can be a cumulative distribution function.
In this logic the cumulative distribution function determine the random variable? How I can prove it in mathematical way? This is true, I understand in my own way, but not mathematically.
Maybe we can start that the cumulative distribution function determine the probability distribution and vica versa. But how I can prove it mathematically that, the probability distribution determine random variable?
Thanks for your explanation,
I am really grateful:)
Answer
In general the CDF does not determine the distribution function. Consider for instance the uniform distributions over [a,b] and over (a,b). The distribution functions are different but it is straightforward to check that the CDFs are identical.
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