Possible Duplicates:
Finding the limit of n/n√n!
How come such different methods result in the same number, e?
I've seen this formula several thousand times: e=lim
I know that it was discovered by Bernoulli when he was working with compound interest problems, but I haven't seen the proof anywhere. Does anyone know how to rigorously demonstrate this relationship?
EDIT:
Sorry for my lack of knowledge in this, I'll try to state the question more clearly. How do we prove the following?
\lim_{x\to \infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^x = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k!}
Answer
From the binomial theorem
\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n {n \choose k} \frac{1}{n^k} = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n}{n}\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}\cdots\frac{n-k+1}{n}\frac{1}{k!}
but as n \to \infty, each term in the sum increases towards a limit of \frac{1}{k!}, and the number of terms to be summed increases so
\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n \to \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}.
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