I was wondering if it's possible to identify this limit without using L'Hôpital's Rule:
limx→1logxx−1
Answer
In THIS ANSWER and THIS ONE I showed, without the use of calculus, that the logarithm function satisfies the inequalities
x−1x≤log(x)≤x−1
Therefore, we can write for x>1
1x≤log(x)x−1≤1
and for x<1
1≤log(x)x−1≤1x
whereupon applying the squeeze theorem yields the result 1.
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