I know that if we want to compute a definite integral by substitution then
∫baf(ϕ(t))ϕ′(t) dt=∫ϕ(b)ϕ(a)f(x) dx
I know that this method can go from left to right or right to left.
If we want to compute indefinite integral of a function using substitution, we express the integral as a composition of two function times the derivative of the function i.e.
∫f(t) dt=∫g(ϕ(t))ϕ′(t) dt=G(ϕ(t))+C
where G is an antiderivative of g and C is the constant of integration. However, how can we compute the indefinite integral of a function that can't be expressed in aforementioned form? For example for evaluating functions like 1√4−x2 we can make the substitution x=2sinθ and find dx in terms of dθ. Substituting its value in the integral, it becomes solvable. However, pretending that dxdθ is a fraction and substituting the value of dx in the integral just because it "works" is not very rigorous. Is there a rigorous statement for solving indefinite integrals which can't be expressed in aforementioned form using substitution just like we have for definite integrals or can they be computed using (1) in a way that I can't figure out?
Answer
You ask a good question. In the example you mentioned, the first step is simply writing down an antiderivative in abstract form, which is
∫x01√4−t2dt,|x|<2.
We know that (1) is an antiderivative for the integrand by the FTC. Now consider the function t=2sins. This function maps (−π/2,π/2) to (−2,2) nicely. By the first equation you wrote,
∫x01√4−t2dt=∫arcsinx/202coss√4−(2sins)2ds.
After we realize that the denominator on the right equals 2coss, we get (1)=arcsinx/2, and we're done.
This is the justification behind the scenes, although after a while you'll be cancelling dx's with the best (worst) of them.
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