If a ring $R$ is commutative, I don't understand why if $A, B \in R^{n \times n}$, $AB=1$ means that $BA=1$, i.e., $R^{n \times n}$ is Dedekind finite.
Arguing with determinant seems to be wrong, although $\det(AB)=\det(BA ) =1$ but it necessarily doesn't mean that $BA =1$.
And is every left zero divisor also a right divisor ?
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