Monday, October 10, 2016

real analysis - Some alternating series converging to values relating to pi.

The following series converge to a value relating to π:
1113+1517+=π4,112+132+152+172+=π28,113133+153173+=π332,114+134+154+174+=π496,115135+155175+=5π51536.




It seems that if we define f(n):=i=0((1)i2i+1)n,nN+, then the values of f are related to π, and in fact I guess we have f(n)=Aπn,AQ.



This is strongly reminiscent of Basel problem, where we have a famous solution based on the Weierstrass factorization theorem. Trying to imitate that proof, I want to find a real function g with Z:=g1(0)={(1)i2i+1:iN}, and g can be factorized as something like g(x)=aZ(1xa), and by comparing the Taylor series of g and applying Vieta's formulas and Newton's identities, we might find the value of f(1) or even more. But these are just wild guesses. I haven't even studied complex analysis, and I'm only imitating the proof for Basel problem. I wonder if this leads to any reasonable solution.



My question is: How do we obtain the value of f(n) and how do we prove these? Don't hesitate to post solutions based on complex analysis or more advanced analysis! Thanks in advance.

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