I need to show that if $a,b,k$ and $m$ are integers and $k ≥ 1, m ≥ 2$, and $a ≡ b\pmod m$, then: $a^k ≡ b^k \pmod m$.
But I have no idea how to show this, I have never been this confused. So is there anyone who could help? just a little, like I honestly feel overwhelmed (sounds stupid I know, sorry)
*what do i need to do with the m ≥ 2 ???
Answer
I assume you know (all equivalences are $\text{mod } m$)
- $a\equiv b \iff a-b\equiv 0$
- $c\equiv 0 \implies cd\equiv 0$
Then
$\begin{align}&a\equiv b\\
\iff &a-b\equiv 0\\
\implies &(a-b)(a^{k-1} + a^{k-2}b + \cdots + ab^{k-2}+b^{k-1})\equiv 0\\
\iff &a^k-b^k\equiv 0\\
\end{align}$
The last deduction above is technically hand-waved but can be made formal with a summation or with induction.
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