I need to show that if a,b,k and m are integers and k≥1,m≥2, and a≡b(modm), then: ak≡bk(modm).
But I have no idea how to show this, I have never been this confused. So is there anyone who could help? just a little, like I honestly feel overwhelmed (sounds stupid I know, sorry)
*what do i need to do with the m ≥ 2 ???
Answer
I assume you know (all equivalences are mod m)
- a≡b⟺a−b≡0
- c≡0⟹cd≡0
Then
a≡b⟺a−b≡0⟹(a−b)(ak−1+ak−2b+⋯+abk−2+bk−1)≡0⟺ak−bk≡0
The last deduction above is technically hand-waved but can be made formal with a summation or with induction.
No comments:
Post a Comment