Saturday, March 26, 2016

algebra precalculus - Multiplying by Inverse of a Fraction question



Hey so I'm doing an exercise and I got a bit confused by something.



I've learned early on that you can multiply the inverse of a fraction and would get the same result as you would if you divided, since you do the exact opposite.




Then why doesn't this hold true for:



10z1/32z2=10z1/32z2



Please explain in simple words.. not too math savvy ^^


Answer



The reason is that you forgot to use the inverse of 2 as well. So it should be
10z1/321z2


That's because in the original expression, you are dividing by 2 and also by z2.




In other words, (2z2)1 can be written as 21z2, but not as 2z2.


No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection f:AB and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...