Hey so I'm doing an exercise and I got a bit confused by something.
I've learned early on that you can multiply the inverse of a fraction and would get the same result as you would if you divided, since you do the exact opposite.
Then why doesn't this hold true for:
10z1/32z2=10z1/3∗2z−2
Please explain in simple words.. not too math savvy ^^
Answer
The reason is that you forgot to use the inverse of 2 as well. So it should be
10z1/3⋅2−1z−2
That's because in the original expression, you are dividing by 2 and also by z2.
In other words, (2z2)−1 can be written as 2−1z−2, but not as 2z−2.
No comments:
Post a Comment