The answer choices available are:
(a) −1π -------- (b)−1π−1
(c) −1π2 -------- (d) undefined
You obviously can't solve the limit straightforwardly, because it gives you an indeterminate form (0/0), right? So I used L'Hôpital's rule, taking the derivative of the numerator and the denominator before plugging in x=1.
Derivative of the numerator: 1x−1
Derivative of the denominator: π(eπ(x−1)+cos(πx))
However, the numerator remains unavoidably equal to zero. Am I doing something wrong, glancing over something really obvious, or are the answer choices wrong? Any help would be greatly appreciated.
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