I just learned of binomial theorem for negative integers (or in that case any real n). Does such a theorem exist for the trinomial theorem (a+b+c)n and has there been work done?
I would think that it could logically be extended in the same way as the binomial. You could look at (a+b+c)−n The first step would be defining the trinomial coefficient. So \binom{-n}{i_1,i_2,i_3}=\frac{(-n)(-n-1)(-n-2)...}{i_1!i_2!i_3!}
But this really doesn't make sense to me. It seems to work in the binomial case since you have (n-k)! in the denominator. For example, for n=6, i_1=1, i_2=2, i_3=3, then \binom{-6}{1,2,3}=\frac{-6(-6-1)(-6-2)(-6-3)}{1!2!3!}=(-1)^4\frac{6\cdot 7\cdot 8\cdot 9}{1!2!3!}=(-1)\frac{9!}{1!2!3!5!}
But this would not be the only interpretation, because which i_j would you expand to? Any insight?
EDIT: Reconsidering: If I have
\binom{n}{i_1,i_2,i_3} Since it is true that n=i_1+i_2+i_3, I can write it as \binom{n}{i_1,i_2,i_3}=\binom{n}{i_1,i_2,n-i_1-i_2}
\binom{n}{i_1,i_2,n-i_1-i_2}=\frac{n!}{i_1!i_2!(n-i_1-i_2)!}=\frac{n(n-1)n-2)...(n-i_1-i_2+1)}{i_1!i_2!} Now considering negative n, \binom{-n}{i_1,i_2,n-i_1-i_2}=\frac{-n(-n-1)(n-2)...(-n-i_1-i_2+1)}{i_1!i_2!} =(-1)^{i_1+i_2}\frac{n(n+1)(n-2)...(n+i_1+i_2-1)}{i_1!i_2!} =(-1)^{i_1+i_2}\frac{(n+i_1+i_2-1)!}{i_1!i_2!(n-1)!} =(-1)^{i_2+i_3}\binom{n+i_1+i_2-1}{i_1,i_2,n-1}
Does this make sense?
Answer
For |b+c| < |a|,
\eqalign{(a+b+c)^{n} &= \sum_{k=0}^\infty {n \choose k} a^{n-k} (b+c)^k\cr & = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \sum_{j=0}^k {n \choose k} {k \choose j} a^{n-k} b^{k-j} c^j\cr}
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